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I think i got something here.
FINALLY i managed to charge a cap with no lenz at all . The gen coil is not affecting the rpm. i  tooked out the hall and connected a signal generator that gives pulses every 5 microseconds.This way the sine wave is shorted every time, not only at the peak. ISN'T THAT CRAZY??? The cap that i charged is 22uF and and not to fast too. 20V in 10 sec. But i'm sure that after i'll tune this circuit there wiil be much  more power out

Hi Mariu
have you seen the video of the "stargate" motor - its a conventional DC motor and he stacks neomagnets around it, and it goes super super fast (but I bet the cores get hot, besides the bearing-sleeves):
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5Xv-req4U8U
 
Anyways, I'll take some pictures of my romero-variant machine, with all the magnets in place - I'm not so good with videos right now...
basically now that I installed two facing coils in series for about 6.4ohms in coils resistance, the motor goes around 250-300rpm wihtout any magnets and with magnets, it now goes 960rpm which is huge difference -  only magnets doing this increase in speed!....draw to motor while it goes 960rpm is 60ma and 12V ...which is really low draw plus I have 5 coils on each plate, with ferrite cores too...Ihave only 4 magnets in rotor, going to put in 4 more for 8.....
 

Hi Gyula!
Thanks for the info on the mosfets. As i said before i'm no good with electonics;especially with details, so any info is welcome!
Still playing with coils and shorting. The gen coil in the picture produces 3V at 3500rpm.(the magnets are very weak). With this kind of shorting , voltage rises much more than i expected. I have connected to the mosfets a simple flyback driver circuit. Now lenz is here again but not so strong. Pulses are around 5 microseconds .If i could give only one short pulse per sine wave i'm conviced that we could charge caps, large caps, with allmost no lenz

Hi Khwartz

Hi Kone
 

you almost got the formula right - but at the very end of it you have f  2  - (cant make a small 2 on this keyboard like you wrote)

...but anyways it is how many discharges within one second that you times it all by at the end of the formula - you dont square the freqpencuy or anything like that jsut times it all by discharges per second..

Ok, if you say so Kone, I believe you! more seriously, you were right I was wrong indeed! I've checked the dimensional equation I didn't checked before and it fits perfectly without squaring the frequency because P [W] = 0.5 * C [F = A*T/V] * (Vmax²-Vmin²) [V²] * f [Hz = cycles per second = T^-1], when simplified gives: V * I = P

You cant measure current without resistance...if you have no resistance across a cap, then the cap fills up without current really - only resistance really is the cap itself then -
good thing is, to make anything resonate you need a cap, just like you need a violin body to resonate the vibrations of the strings...without a violin body, there would be no resonance, without a cap you cant resonate anything electically....so having a cap in system is good, filling it without any resistance is good, and when you hit aload with cap, disconnect the cap from its "source" when the cap hits load pretty simple eh - this way the "source" never sees the load.

I knew for needing of cap for resonating, but now, it's even clearer to me for what we try to do and yes, i'll remember that the load must not meet the coil at any time

I cannot  understand a single sentence that Tom Beardan writes sorry.....

hehe, it's ok! for me too, his language doesn't look to me very academic, and I'm surprised not having been able to find any true mathematical formula as any true scientist would be able to produce to make any other experimentator to replicate and even predict the results expected. but I didn't have so much read from him, ans surely with bad translations too, so... I don't know if he knew exactly what he was doing, but I think he has kind of "physicist intuition" about what's going on, that he express could be to simpler to realise he is right in his way
Did you see this vid: http://video.google.com/videoplay?docid=-988496603742502119 ?

Many pages ago, someone (i think konehead) described what happens in the coil at magnet flyby. Scope shots helped in understanding at which moment the electrons (officially ) are pushed inside the coil.
Let me recall (for a magnet travelling over a coil from left to right, magnet and coil diameter similar):
The first peak (let us assume a positive one) happens, when the right end of the magnet hits the left side of the coil windings. =>The electrons in the left windings are pushed and can travel without counterforce in the coil.
When the magnet is in the center position, the scope shows a "zero". =>The electrons in both sides of the coil are pushed in opposite directions (right and left end of the magnet pushing electrons in the coil against each other.
The second peak then happens, mirroring the first one, when the left side of the magnet pushes electrons in the right side of the coil windings.

Therefore it is a clue for me, why most of the builders use same width (diameter) for magnets and coils.

The obvious point: if the width of the magnet is smaller (lets say minimum half) than the width of the coil, you will have four instead of two peaks, because the magnet is not able to push the electrons in the coil against each other at the same time. =>double amount of electrons are pushed by changing geometry alone...

Please let me know your opinions.

Thank you,

uu

Hi Mr uu
 
It depends on lots of things besides the widths of coil and widths of magnets - such as aircoil, or coil with core in it - when you have core, then the core gets the "brunt" of the magnet, and the core is what gives the "signal shape" to the coil, and its not a direct magnet-coil thing going on, like in an aircoil.
yes I agree its the edges of the rotor magnets are what induce the peaks in an aircoil...But wha is interesting to me at least, is  it makes no sense when using hockey-puck shaped magnet that there are two "edges" to magnet, since you can twist the rotor-magnet around, and it doesnt make any difference to the signal-shape(this makes no sense to me at least!)
While, if you use a rectangular shaped brick or block shaped magnet, then theer is an obvious N-S polarity to the ends of the magnets, the sides, and the faces.....(why Beardon alsways calls magent "dipoles" since there are 6 sides to dice, and 6 sides to magnets)
Also the speed in rpms of the rotor makes a difference in the signal-shape too in how huch time the magnet gets to react to the coil...
I personally like to string two "adjacent" coils on a coil-plate  connected together  "backwards in polarity" and in series too, and then have one magnet in rotor pass by each, and so not have a single magnet for each coil, ( this is with aircoils) this gives a perfect AC sinewave as shown....this means explained in another way, if 8 magnet rotor, you would have 16 coils on coil plates each side,  (this mullergen style sort of ) wiht 8 of those coils face-on with the magnets to get the perfect sinewave shown here with photo of AC signal from coils indeuced rotor of 8 all-N magnets and it has 16 aircoil positioned each side:

Hi Marius,

Here is a 555 timer circuit with independly variable duty cycle and frequency adjusting possibility:

http://www.overunity.com/8597/solid-state-orbo-system/msg234095/#msg234095 

The output of this can go directly to the MOSFET gate as shown in your above link or if you could use a MOSFET driver like TC4422 or 4421 etc it would give a faster switch.   Also if you could obtain the CMOS version of the NE555 like LMC555CN from National Semiconductor or TLC555CP from Texas Instruments, then these types have much less fall and rise time output pulses then the old NE555 bipolar process type have, so they are able to switch faster (you could omit the 2N2222 driver but just test this, it is better to have an "isolating" stage between the MOSFET and the output pin of the 555.  And the CMOS version is fully pin compatible with the old NE555.

Gyula

Hi Gyula,
    Nice simple circuit, what cap value connected to pins 2&6 would generate a 2mhz frequency, would it be a higher or lower value? sorry for the dumb question, i don't have an ocilloscope to check.


    Thanks!